A sufficient condition for differentiability

Theorem 1(Lemma).

A vector valued function is differentiable at iff each is differentiable at .

Proof
Let be differentiable at . Then,

where as . On writing the component wise equations, we find

where as . Thus, is differentiable at , and .

Conversely, if each is differentiable at with , then the linear transformation given by

satisfies the first order Taylor formula for , and hence is differentiable at with derivative .

Theorem 2.

Assume that one of the partial derivatives exist at and that the remaining partial derivatives exist in some -ball and are continuous at . Then is differentiable at .

Note that this is not a necessary condition.

Proof
The existence of implies the existence of every and the continuity of implies the continuity of each . Thus, thanks to the preceding lemma, it suffices to prove the theorem when is real valued.

WLOG, assume that exists at and that exist in and are continuous at . We know that if is differentiable at , then its derivative is given by the Jacobian matrix, which in this case is the gradient . Thus, we only have to prove that

where as .

Let , where and . We keep small enough so that lies in the ball in which the partial derivatives , …, exist. Let .

Write as a telescoping sum:

where , , , …, .

The first term in the sum is . Since the two points and differ only in the first component, and since exists, we can write

where as .

For , the th term in the sum is

where . We could try to proceed as before: notice that and differ in only the th component and that exists, so

where as . But this is not helpful; we need , not . This is where we use the continuity hypothesis. From the vanilla mean value theorem, we have

where . Note that since as , as . Now, since is continuous at ,

where as .

We finally have

where


A sufficient condition for equality of mixed partial derivatives

Definition 3.

Theorem 4.

If both partial derivatives and exist in an -ball and if both are differentiable at , then

Proof
In light of the previous lemma, it is sufficient to prove the theorem for real valued . Also, since only two components are involved, it suffices to consider the case . Assume ; the same argument can be repeated for arbitrary .

Choose so that the square with vertices , and lies in the -ball . Consider the quantity

We will show that is equal to both and .

Define and note that

The existence of in implies the differentiability of the map on . Similarly, the map is differentiable on . It follows that is differentiable on . From the one-dimensional mean value theorem, we have

where . Since is differentiable at , we have the first order Taylor formulas

and

where and as . So,

where . Since ,

so

Next, define and note that . The same procedure yields .

Theorem 5(Corollary).

If both partial derivatives and exist in an -ball and if both and are continuous at , then

As in the previous theorem, it suffices to prove this when and is real valued. The proof is very similar to the previous one; use a second application of MVT.